PHARMACOLOGY
1) Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?
A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting
2) Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule
3) Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
A. Propafenone
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Quinidine
4) Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?
A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne
5) Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones
6) A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.
A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist
7) A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.
A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist
8) A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.
A. Chemo
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
9) A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
A. Chemo
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
10) Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
11) Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart
12) Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone?
A. Inflammation
B. Asthma
C. Addison's disease
D. Wilson's disease
13) Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)?
A. Alkalosis
B. Nausea
C. Hypotension
D. Potassium deficits
14) Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?
A. Rash
B. Angioedema
C. Cough
D. Congestion
15) Which of the following are not treated with Barbiturates?
A. Seizures
B. Hypotension
C. Insomnia
D. Anxiety
16) The duration of analgesia is one important characteristic which differentiates one opioid from another. Which opioid possesses the shortest duration of analgesia?
A. Morphine
B. Hydromorphone
C. Codeine
D. Meperidine
17) Aspirin may be fatal if taken in sufficient quantity. The syndrome of acute salicylate overdose in children is characterized by:
A. Marked hypothermia secondary to an antipyretic effect
B. Fever
C. Peripheral edema
D. Disturbance in acid-base and electrolyte balance
18) Which of the following anti-arrhythmics may worsen angina symptoms by increasing myocardial oxygen requirements?
A. Lidocaine
B. Verapamil
C. Propranolol
D. Disopyramide
19) Side effects of niacin include:
A. Flushing
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Jaundice
D. All of the above
20) Metabolic alkalosis may be a complication of the administration of:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Warfarin
C. Ambien
D. Acetazolamide
21) The drug of choice for Streptococcus pneumonia (pneumococcus) in a patient with no drug allergies is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Ceftriaxone
22) Rifampin is used mainly in the treatment of:
A. Cholera
B. Typhoid fever
C. Tuberculosis
D. Worm diseases
23) Which of the following statements is correct concerning adrenergic drugs?
A. At beta-1 receptors, isoproterenol is more potent than epinephrine, which is equipotent with norepinephrine
B. At alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine is less potent than norepinephrine, which in turn is much more potent than isoproterenol
C. At beta-2 receptors, isoproterenol is equal to or more potent than epinephrine, which is much less potent than norepinephrine
D. None of the above
24) Chemotherapeutic agents:
A. Kill a constant number of cells
B. Kill a constant fraction of cells
C. Cure most common tumors
D. None of the above
25) Testosterone therapy is useful in the treatment of male hypogonadism. Other pharmacologic uses of androgens include:
A. Male contraceptive
B. Treatment of hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Treatment of precocious puberty in males
D. None of the above
26) Adverse effects of laxatives:
A. Electrolyte disturbances (hypernatremia, hypokalemia)
B. Dehydration
C. Spastic colitis with stimulant laxatives
D. All of the above
27) The rapid heart rate sometimes seen after nitroglycerin administration is best explained by:
A. A direct positive chronotropic effect on the myocardium
B. Reflex sympathetic discharge due to a fall in systemic blood pressure
C. The ability of nitroglycerin to release norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings
D. A decrease in intracranial pressure
28) The metabolic actions of insulin may be described as:
A. Increased rate of transport of glucose into the brain
B. Increased conversion of protein to glucose
C. Inhibition of hormone-sensitive lipase
D. Enhanced glycogenolysis
29) Correct statement about bioavailability include:
A. Pertains to the rate and extent of drug absorption
B. For two dosage forms of a drug to be considered equally bioavailable, the measured AUC for each drug must be equal ;
C. For two dosage forms of a drug to be therapeutically equivalent they must be equally bioavailable
D. None of the above
30) All of the following are monoamine oxidase inhibitors EXCEPT:
A. Phenelzine
B. Isocarboxazid
C. Tranylcypromine
D. Maprotiline
31) Drugs that may decrease theophylline clearance include:
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Phenytoin
D. None of the above
32) Which of the following is classified as an antifungal?
A. Septra
B. TobraDex
C. Zyrtec
D. Lotrisone
ANSWERS
1.D 12.D 23.A
2.D 13.B 24.B
3.A 14.D 25.B
4.B 15.B 26.D
5.C 16.D 27.B
6.B 17.C 28.C
7.D 18.D 29.B
8.C 19.D 30.D
9.B 20.A 31.A
10.C 21.B 32.D
11.B 22.C